Bevae-181 IGNOU | Environmental Studies MCQ's Answer Key 2022
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1. Which one of the following is an example of man-made environment?
1. Orchards
2. Sanctuaries
3. Crop fields
4. Plantations
Ans: 3. Crop fields
2. Who coined the term ‘Possibilism’?
(1) Lucien Febvre
(2) Vidal de la Blache
(3) Ellen Churchill Semple
(4) C.S. Holling
Ans: 1. Lucien Febvre
3. Which one of the following is not one of the seventeen Sustainable Development Goals?
(1) Life on land
(2) Life on air
(3) Life below water
(4) Climate action
Ans: 2. Life on air
4. Holding meeting in a remote location to minimize public participation is an example of ______
(1) Geographical inequity
(2) Procedural inequity
(3) Social inequity
(4) Economic inequity
Ans: 3. Social inequality
5. Which of the following views towards nature was proposed as an alternative to patriarchal system of domination?
(1) Biocentrism
(2) Ecocentrism
(3) Anthropocentrism
(4) Ecofeminism
Ans: 1. Biocentrism
6. The main Centre of ENVIS is located at:
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Delhi
(3) Ahmedabad
(4) Kolkata
Ans: 2. Delhi
7. Primary Consumers are:
(1) Herbivores
(2) Plants
(3) Carnivores
(4) Autotrophs
Ans: 1. Herbivores
8. The following components – sulphates in water, acid rain and fossil fuel are part of the:
(1) Carbon cycle
(2) Nitrogen cycle
(3) Water cycle
(4) Sedimentary cycle
Ans: 4. Sedimentary cycle
9. In ecological succession, the final stage is termed as:
(1) Climax community
(2) Lichen stage
(3) Moss stage
(4) Seral stage
Ans: 1. Climax community
10. In an ecosystem, energy is lost in the form of:
(1) Heat energy
(2) Saprophytic matter
(3) Chemical energy
(4) Rains
Ans: 3. Chemical energy
11. At global level the region most prone to natural calamities is:
(1) Australia
(2) Asia
(3) Africa
(4) Latin America
Ans: 2. Asia
12. Among the following factories, which is not in the “Taj Trapezium Zone”?
(1) Glass Factories
(2) Mathura Oil Refinery
(3) Mathura Sugar Factory
(4) Brick Kilns
Ans: 3. Mathura sugar factory
13. Silent Valley is the narrow valley of the ______ river:
(1) Periyar
(2) Kunthi
(3) Kaveri
(4) Jamuna
Ans: 2. Kunthi
14. The world population around 800 BC was approximately:
(1) 3 million
(2) 4 million
(3) 5 million
(4) 6 million
Ans: (3) 5 million
15. The temperate deciduous forests have:
(1) Trees with vines and strangler fig
(2) Shrubs with the height of 3-5 meters
(3) Evergreen fir and pine trees with 30-40 meters height
(4) Trees of 40-50 meters height with thin and broad leaves
Ans: 4. trees of 40-50 meters height with thin and broad leaves.
16. In India, Teak and Bamboo are common in:
(1) Tropical seasonal forests
(2) Temperate evergreen forests
(3) Coniferous forests
(4) Tropical rain forests
Ans: 1. Tropical seasonal forests
17. In Indian grassland ecosystem, the biomass peaks in the period between:
(1) January to March
(2) March to May
(3) September to October
(4) November to January
Ans: 3. September to October
18. An example of lotic freshwater ecosystem is:
(1) Lake
(2) Pool
(3) Swamp
(4) River
Ans: 4. River
19. Insecticides, particularly DDT, led to the reduction of population of:
(1) Marine fish
(2) Deer
(3) Rats
(4) Birds
Ans: 4. Birds
20. Steady rehabilitation of the Great Indian Rhinoceros was hampered because:
(1) enough food was not available in the habitat
(2) of difficult climatic conditions
(3) of the rinderpest disease
(4) of competition with other animals
Ans: 3. of the rinderpest disease
21. The problem of invasive species is likely to increase due to:
(1) Climate change
(2) Mining
(3) Desertification
(4) Heavy rain
Ans: 1. Climate change
22. Alien species which is known to cause skin allergies is:
(1) Prosopis juliflora
(2) Ectopistes migratorius
(3) Parthenium hysterophorus
(4) Eucalyptus citriodora
Ans: 3. Parthenium hysterophorus
23. Which one of the following is not a criterion for designation of biodiversity hotspots?
(1) Species richness
(2) Endemism
(3) Accelerated species loss
(4) Lesser interspecific competition
Ans: 4. Lesser interspecific competition
24. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents:
(1) Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region
(2) Species endemic to the region
(3) Endangered species found in the region
(4) Diversity of and in living nature
Ans: 1. Genetic diversity in the dominant species of the region
25. Which one of the following animals is found only in Western Ghats?
(1) Barking Deer
(2) Malabar Grey Hornbill
(3) Sloth Bear
(4) Wild Buffalo
Ans: 2. Malabar grey hornbill
26. The main source of water for lakes and rivers is:
(1) Rainfall
(2) Runoff
(3) Transpiration
(4) Sublimation
Ans: 2. Runoff
27. Which of the following is not true for red soil?
(1) It supports rainforests and grasslands.
(2) It is found in plateaus and low land areas of Eastern Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh.
(3) It is good for cultivation of potatoes, rubber and bananas.
(4) It is good for crops of cotton, rice and groundnut.
Ans: 4. It is good for crops of cotton, rice and groundnut.
28. An ‘aquifer’ is:
(1) the boundary between the saturated zone and unsaturated zone in rocks.
(2) a layer of rock through which water percolates down.
(3) the gap in the soil which is filled with air and water.
(4) the gap in the soil which is completely filled with water.
Ans: 2. A layer of rock through which water percolates down.
29. The most effective treatment of alkaline soil is to apply:
(1) Urea
(2) Potassium
(3) Sodium nitrate
(4) Gypsum
Ans: 4. Gypsum
30. From which of the following types of sources can energy be harnessed using Photovoltaic cell?
(1) Wind
(2) Geothermal
(3) Sun
(4) Water
Ans: 3. Sun
31. The first wave/tidal energy plant was established in India at:
(1) Chennai
(2) Thiruvananthapuram
(3) Kochi
(4) Vishakhapatnam
Ans: 2. Thiruvananthapuram
32. The largest coal producing country in the world is:
(1) India
(2) South Africa
(3) China
(4) United States of America
Ans: 3. China
33. The maximum population that can be supported by the resources of the planet at given level of technology:
(1) Is the biophysical capacity.
(2) Is the social carrying capacity
(3) Indicates standard of living of people.
(4) Indicates economic growth.
Ans: 1. Is the biophysical capacity
34. Among the following, which one is the major contributor to greenhouse effect?
(1) Nitrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Argon
(4) Water vapour
Ans: 4. Water vapour
35. Which of the following statements is correct for Ultra Violet (UV) radiation:
(1) UV C is not absorbed by oxygen.
(2) UV B is absorbed by the ozone layer.
(3) UV A is not absorbed by the ozone layer.
(4) UV C is not dangerous.
Ans: 2. UV B is absorbed by ozone layer.
36. Which one of the following can cause skin cancer and cataract in humans?
(1) Ozone
(2) UV radiation
(3) Acid rain
(4) Methane
Ans: 2. UV radiation
37. Which one of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(1) Ozone
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Sulphur dioxide
Ans: 1. Ozone
38. The standard level of RSPM is:
(1) 60 micrograms per cubic meter
(2) 70 micrograms per cubic meter
(3) 160 micrograms per cubic meter
(4) 170 micrograms per cubic meter
Ans: 1. 60 micrograms per cubic meter
39. The Kyoto Protocol deals with which environmental issue?
(1) Greenhouse gas emissions
(2) Biological diversity
(3) Ozone layer depletion
(4) Persistent organic pollutant
Ans: 1. Greenhouse gas emissions
40. Hotspots are regions of high:
(1) Rarity
(2) Endemism
(3) Critically endangered population
(4) Diversity
Ans: 2. Endemism
41. What is the main aim of the 1987 Amendment of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?
(1) To enable an integrated approach to environmental problems
(2) To set up State Air Pollution Control Boards
(3) To set up Central Pollution Control Board
(4) To introduce stiffer penalties
Ans: 1. To enable an integrated approach to environmental problems
42. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year:
(1) 1972
(2) 1974
(3) 1980
(4) 1986
Ans: 1. 1972
43. Which convention took up the protection of ozone layer?
(1) Vienna Convention
(2) Basel Convention
(3) Stockholm Convention.
(4) Montreal Convention
Ans: 1. Vienna Convention
44. Which one of the following is generally not a recyclable waste?
(1) Glass
(2) Metals
(3) Medical waste
(4) Plastics
Ans: 3. Medical waste
45. Which one of the following is not a method of waste minimization?
(1) Process modification
(2) Waste concentration
(3) Treatment of waste
(4) Waste segregation
Ans: 3. Treatment of waste
46. Which one of the following is not a method of disposal of hazardous waste?
(1) Sanitary landfills
(2) Incineration
(3) Dumping at sea
(4) Underground disposal
Ans: 3. Dumping at sea
47. Which one of the following is not correct in the context of biodiversity in India?
(1) India has 6 biodiversity hotspots.
(2) About 33% of the recorded flora is endemic.
(3) India has 10 biogeographic regions.
(4) India is one of the 12 centers of origin of cultivated plants.
Ans: 1. India has 6 biodiversity hotspots.
48. Which one of the following does not represent ecological significance of forest?
(1) Supporting natural ecological system
(2) Moderation of global climate
(3) Protection of biodiversity
(4) Providing aesthetic and spiritual value
Ans: 4. Providing aesthetic and spiritual value
49. Which one of the following is not included in the category of Non-Timber Forest product?
(1) Medicinal herbs
(2) Edible flowers
(3) Animal hides and bones
(4) Edible fruits
Ans: 3. Animal hides and bones
50. Joint Forest Management was firstly implemented in the State of:
(1) Haryana
(2) West Bengal
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Kerala
Ans: 2. West Bengal
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